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UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 GS Paper-1: Subject-wise Analysis

 

UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 GS Paper-1: Subject-wise Analysis

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This document is created with efforts of Top UPSC Experts with the help of AI UPSC Agents. So <1% Error could be due to AI Use.

1. Overall Paper Overview

Parameter Analysis
Total questions 100
Total marks 200 marks
Marks per question 2 marks
Overall difficulty Moderate to Difficult
Dominant feature Heavy use of statement-based, elimination-based, current-linked questions
Static vs current affairs Around 45–50% static, 50–55% current-linked or dynamic
Best-performing aspirant profile Strong static base + regular newspaper/PIB/government report coverage + elimination skill

Key Characteristics of 2026 Paper

  • The paper was not purely factual; many questions required conceptual clarity plus option elimination.
  • History was unusually visible in the opening block, especially Ancient History, Art & Culture and cultural traditions.
  • Environment questions were strongly linked with species, protected areas, climate change, mangroves, REDD+, FAO and conservation initiatives.
  • Science & Technology was heavily current-oriented, covering AI, blockchain, quantum mission, genome, space, weather model, genetic medicine, drone swarm and green hydrogen.
  • Economy questions focused on digital economy, financial inclusion, CBDC, tokenisation, MSME finance, NBFCs, MPI and bonds.
  • Polity and governance questions tested constitutional provisions, Parliament, disability rights, SC/ST provisions, BNSS, public administration and ethical decision-making.
  • International relations and miscellaneous current affairs were very strong in the last section, with questions on ASEAN, BIMSTEC, UN peacekeeping, EU, migration forums and India-supported projects.

2. Subject-wise Question Distribution

Subject-wise Distribution in 2026

Subject Approx. No. of Questions Percentage
History + Art & Culture 21 21%
Geography 9 9%
Indian Polity, Governance & Ethics 13 13%
Economy & Social Development 15 15%
Environment & Ecology 10 10%
Science & Technology 18 18%
International Relations, Security & Miscellaneous Current Affairs 14 14%
Total 100 100%

Comparison with Previous Years

Different institutes classify overlap questions differently, so the following comparison should be read as an indicative trend, not an official UPSC classification. For 2025–2021, one compiled trend gives: Environment 10,15,12,22,16; History 12,12,13,15,20; Geography 14,18,16,8,14; Economy 21,14,14,17,15; Science & Technology 15,13,15,11,12; Polity 15,15,12,9,17; Current Affairs 13,13,18,18,15 for 2025–2021 respectively. An IAS institute separately reported the 2024 paper as Economy 14, Environment 15, Geography 18, History 12, Polity 15, Science & Technology 13, and Miscellaneous 13.

Subject 2026 2025 2024 2023 2022 2021 Broad Trend
History + Culture 21 12 12 13 15 20 Sharp rise in 2026
Geography 9 14 18 16 8 14 Lower than 2024–25
Polity/Governance 13 15 15 12 9 17 Stable-medium
Economy 15 21 14 14 17 15 Near normal
Environment 10 10 15 12 22 16 Lower than 2022/2024
Science & Tech 18 15 13 15 11 12 Noticeable rise
IR/Security/Misc. 14 13 13 18 18 15 Stable-high

3. Detailed Subject-wise Analysis

A. History + Art & Culture

Area Approx. Questions
Ancient History 9
Medieval / Regional History 1
Modern History 5
Art & Culture 6
Total 21

Difficulty Level

Easy Medium Difficult
3 9 9

Nature of Questions

  • The History section was source-heavy and factual-conceptual.
  • Ancient History asked from Rigveda, Pali texts, Jainism, Harappan archaeology, early Tamilakam and ancient rivers.
  • Art & Culture focused on Buddhist iconography, Amaravati, music gharanas, Carnatic-Hindustani raga comparison, temple architecture and Bagh Cave painting.
  • Modern History questions were not simple chronology-based; they required movement-specific and policy-specific knowledge, such as Forward Bloc, Awadh annexation, separate electorates, Hilton-Young Commission, Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha.

Standard Sources

Sub-area Sources
Ancient History Old NCERT by R.S. Sharma, Tamil Nadu history text, Nitin Singhania selective reading
Art & Culture Nitin Singhania, CCRT, NCERT Fine Arts Class XI
Modern History Spectrum, Bipan Chandra, old NCERT Modern India
Cultural current linkage UNESCO updates, PIB, newspaper culture pages

Key Observation

  • History made a strong comeback, but not through routine Modern History.
  • The demand was more on deep static reading and less on coaching-style short notes.

B. Geography

Sub-topic Approx. Questions
Physical Geography 3
Indian Geography 3
World Geography / Places in News 2
Map-based / Location-based 1
Total 9

Difficulty Level

Easy Medium Difficult
2 5 2

Nature of Questions

  • Geography was less in number but high in quality.
  • Questions tested Peninsular Block, island climate, river systems, Strait of Hormuz, Lake Turkana, Indian State boundaries and seaport logistics.
  • The paper mixed static geography with current places in news, such as UNESCO geoparks and international maritime locations.

Standard Sources

Area Sources
Physical Geography NCERT Class XI Physical Geography, G.C. Leong
Indian Geography NCERT Class XI/XII, Oxford/Orient BlackSwan Atlas
World map Atlas + newspaper mapping practice
Current geography Down To Earth, PIB, UNESCO, The Hindu/Indian Express

Key Observation

  • Map practice was essential, especially for international straits, lakes, geoparks and neighbouring countries.

C. Indian Polity, Governance & Ethics

Sub-topic Approx. Questions
Constitution and Fundamental Rights 2
Parliament and Committees 2
SC/ST, disability and social justice 2
Law and criminal procedure 1
Government organisations and schemes 3
Governance / ethics case-based 3
Total 13

Difficulty Level

Easy Medium Difficult
4 6 3

Nature of Questions

  • The Polity section was less Laxmikanth-direct and more application-based.
  • Questions from Article 13, commencement/repeal provisions, parliamentary questions, committees, SC/ST provisions and disability rights required exact constitutional and legal clarity.
  • Three questions were almost ethics-governance mini case studies, testing accountability, mediation and transparency.

Standard Sources

Area Sources
Constitution M. Laxmikanth, bare provisions of Constitution
Parliament PRS, Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha websites
Governance 2nd ARC, PIB, government scheme documents
Law updates BNSS 2023 basic provisions
Ethics-governance GS-4 case-study approach, public administration basics

Key Observation

  • The paper indicates a shift from bookish polity to governance-in-action polity.
  • Aspirants must prepare constitutional provisions + real administrative application.

D. Economy & Social Development

Sub-topic Approx. Questions
Digital economy and payments 4
Financial inclusion and finance 4
MSME, crowdfunding, NBFCs 3
Poverty and social indicators 1
Bonds, insurance, fiscal concepts 3
Total 15

Difficulty Level

Easy Medium Difficult
5 7 3

Nature of Questions

  • Economy was conceptual + current-linked.
  • Direct conceptual questions appeared from crowding out, sustainability bond, FI-Index, NBFCs and crowdfunding.
  • Current economy questions came from ONDC, UPI vs Digital Rupee, tokenisation, M1xchange, MPI and critical finance concepts.
  • Questions were manageable for aspirants who followed RBI, Economic Survey, Budget and financial sector current affairs.

Standard Sources

Area Sources
Basic economy NCERT XI/XII, Ramesh Singh selective reading
Banking/Finance RBI website, RBI reports, SEBI basics
Current economy Economic Survey, Union Budget, PIB
Digital economy ONDC, NPCI, RBI CBDC notes
Social indicators NITI Aayog, UNDP MPI reports

Key Observation

  • Economy was not calculation-heavy.
  • Financial terminology and institutional clarity were more important than macroeconomic theory.

E. Environment & Ecology

Sub-topic Approx. Questions
Species and biodiversity 3
Protected areas and Ramsar sites 1
Climate change and emissions 2
Mangroves, REDD+, conservation 2
Sustainable agriculture / FAO / NMSA 2
Total 10

Difficulty Level

Easy Medium Difficult
3 5 2

Nature of Questions

  • Environment was current-heavy but conceptually answerable.
  • Questions came from Madhav National Park, Foxtail orchid, Hoolock Gibbon, Amur Falcon, mangroves, REDD+, FAO Blue Transformation, LT-LEDS and Rainfed Area Development.
  • The questions required knowledge of species status, habitat, government initiatives and climate policy language.

Standard Sources

Area Sources
Ecology basics Shankar IAS Environment, NCERT Biology
Species IUCN, WII, MoEFCC, State biodiversity boards
Climate change UNFCCC, India BUR, LT-LEDS, PIB
Schemes MoEFCC, Ministry of Agriculture, FAO
Protected areas Ramsar website, UNESCO, MoEFCC

Key Observation

  • Environment was not as high as 2022 or 2024, but remained high-yield because of current linkage.

F. Science & Technology

Sub-topic Approx. Questions
Digital technology / AI / blockchain 4
Space and defence technology 4
Biotechnology and health technology 3
Climate-energy technology 2
Semiconductor / microprocessor / weather model 3
Quantum / deep ocean / genome 2
Total 18

Difficulty Level

Easy Medium Difficult
4 9 5

Nature of Questions

  • Science & Technology was one of the most important sections.
  • Questions were based on LLMs, genetic medicine, stealth technology, black boxes, green hydrogen, private space sector, drone swarms, GenomeIndia, National Quantum Mission and Deep Ocean Mission.
  • The paper tested basic conceptual understanding of recent technologies, not advanced science.

Standard Sources

Area Sources
Current S&T PIB, Indian Express Explained, The Hindu Science
Space ISRO, IN-SPACe, Department of Space
Biotechnology DBT, GenomeIndia, WHO basic notes
AI/Digital tech MeitY, NITI Aayog, standard explainers
Defence tech DRDO, PIB, basic science concepts
Energy MNRE, National Green Hydrogen Mission

Key Observation

  • S&T was a scoring opportunity for aspirants who had prepared current technology through conceptual explainers.
  • Memorising only names of missions was insufficient; statements tested working principles and limitations.

G. International Relations, Security & Miscellaneous

Sub-topic Approx. Questions
India and neighbourhood 4
Multilateral organisations 5
Defence and security 3
Awards/sports/culture current affairs 2
Total 14

Difficulty Level

Easy Medium Difficult
2 8 4

Nature of Questions

  • IR was fact-heavy and current-linked.
  • Questions came from India-ASEAN connectivity, India-supported projects, BIMSTEC centres, UN peacekeeping operations, migration forums, Nobel-linked UN agencies, EU members and defence establishments.
  • Security questions included Mission Sudarshan Chakra, defence hardware and army corps locations.

Standard Sources

Area Sources
IR basics MEA website, India Year Book selective reading
Neighbourhood MEA briefs, PIB
Multilateral organisations UN, BIMSTEC, ASEAN official websites
Defence PIB Defence, Ministry of Defence, basic mapping
Miscellaneous CA Monthly current affairs, newspaper revision notes

Key Observation

  • IR was not only diplomacy-based; it included locations, institutions, projects and security facts.

4. Trend Analysis

Major Year-on-Year Shifts

Trend 2026 Observation
History Increased sharply; Ancient + Culture highly visible
Geography Reduced compared with 2024 and 2025
Environment Moderate, but strongly current-linked
Economy Stable and focused on finance/digital economy
S&T Increased significantly; technology literacy became crucial
Polity Moderate, but less direct and more governance-based
IR/Misc. Strong presence in later part of paper

Emerging Patterns

  • UPSC continues to avoid predictable “one book, one line” questions.
  • Current affairs is no longer a separate section; it is embedded into Geography, Economy, Environment, S&T and IR.
  • Assertion/relationship-based questions are increasing.
  • Questions increasingly test whether candidates can identify overstatement, exaggeration and absolute wording.
  • Conventional subjects are being asked through new examples, such as ports, AI, biodiversity, finance platforms and global institutions.

5. Question Type & Format Analysis

Question Type Approx. Frequency Observation
Statement-based questions Very high Dominant UPSC format
Match-the-list Moderate Used in IR, committees, organisations and UN operations
Assertion / relationship-based Moderate Requires conceptual connection
Direct factual Low to moderate Mostly in culture, geography, current affairs
Case-study style 3 Governance and ethics-oriented
Map/location-based Moderate Lakes, straits, rivers, bridges, geoparks
Elimination-heavy Very high Options often designed to punish partial knowledge

Quality of Options

  • Options were closely framed.
  • Many wrong statements used absolute or exaggerated claims.
  • Several questions could be solved by rejecting one clearly incorrect statement, but many required confidence in two or more statements.
  • Guessing without content knowledge was risky.

6. Key Takeaways & Strategic Recommendations

High-Yield Areas for Next Exam

Subject Priority Areas
History Ancient texts, archaeology, Buddhism/Jainism, Art & Culture, Modern movements
Geography Atlas-based mapping, Indian physiography, world locations in news, river systems
Polity Constitution articles, Parliament, social justice laws, governance institutions
Economy RBI, digital payments, financial inclusion, NBFCs, fintech, social indicators
Environment Species, protected areas, climate policies, international conventions, sustainable agriculture
S&T AI, quantum, biotech, space, defence tech, semiconductors, energy transition
IR Neighbourhood projects, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, UN bodies, defence/security locations

Preparation Strategy Based on 2026 Paper

  • Build static clarity first, especially in History, Polity, Geography and Economy.
  • Read current affairs through subject-wise folders, not as isolated monthly facts.
  • Prepare government schemes from original ministry sources, especially objectives, nodal ministry, components and recent changes.
  • Practise statement elimination daily, especially with “only”, “all”, “necessarily”, “exclusively”, “first”, “endemic”, “not correct” and “best explains”.
  • Maintain a separate notebook for places in news, species in news, reports, indices, missions and institutions.
  • Revise NCERTs and standard books multiple times, because UPSC is connecting obscure current examples with basic static foundations.
  • For S&T, focus on what it is, how it works, where it is used, and what it cannot do.

Overall Conclusion

The UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 GS Paper-1 was moderate to difficult, with a clear tilt towards analytical current affairs, deep static knowledge and elimination-based reasoning. The paper rewarded aspirants who had prepared standard sources + current linkages + conceptual clarity, while penalising those dependent only on factual compilations. The biggest message is clear: UPSC Prelims preparation must now be integrated, map-based, institution-aware, technology-aware and revision-driven.

UPSC CSE Prelim 2026 GS Paper 1 - Model Answer Previous Year Question Paper-

 

UPSC CSE Prelim 2026 GS Paper 1 - Download Original PDF

Q(1). Consider the following assertion:

In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

  1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda

  2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote

  3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) 1 and 2

    (d.) 3

Q(2). What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a.) The meditation of the Buddha

(b.) The Buddha's First Sermon

(c.) The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana

(d.) The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana

Q(3). Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

  1. Vitasta : Chenab

  2. Asikni : Jhelum

  3. Parushni : Ravi

  4. Yavyavati : Beas

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2

    (b.) 3 and 4

    (c.) 1 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(4). Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

  1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.

  2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.

  3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 3 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(5). Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

  1. Senguttuvan : Chera

  2. Udiyanjeral : Chola

  3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) 3 only

    (d.) 1 and 3

Q(6). Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

  1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.

  2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.

  3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.

  4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 1, 2 and 4

    (c.) 1, 3 and 4

    (d.) 2 and 4 only

Q(7). Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

  1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.

  2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.

  3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 2 and 3 only

    (b.) 1 and 3 only

    (c.) 1, 2 and 3

    (d.) 2 only

Q(8). Consider the following assertion:

The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

  1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.

  2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.

  3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(9). Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a.) Agra Gharana

(b.) Gwalior Gharana

(c.) Patiala Gharana

(d.) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Q(10). In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?

(a.) Rigveda

(b.) Atharvaveda

(c.) Ashtadhyayi

(d.) Arthashastra

Q(11). Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a.) Nat Bhairavi

(b.) Kamavardhini

(c.) Hanumatodi

(d.) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Q(12). The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

(a.) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness

(b.) Providing support to Indian importers

(c.) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India

(d.) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Q(13). Consider the following statements:

  1. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, hamsa, and kakanika.

  2. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

    The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

  3. Emergence of urban life

  4. Transition to money economy

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

Q(14). Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

  1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami

  2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole

  3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh

  4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2

    (b.) 2 and 3

    (c.) 3 only

    (d.) 3 and 4

Q(15). Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

(a.) Deva (gods)

(b.) Yaksha (demi-gods)

(c.) Manushya (humans)

(d.) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Q(16). The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

(a.) A joyous folk dance

(b.) Buddha in a meditative pose

(c.) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha

(d.) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Q(17). Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

  1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596).

  2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.

  3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    (a.) 1 and 2 only

    (b.) 1 and 3 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(18). Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:

I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.

II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.

III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

  1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.

  2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.

  3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(19). Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

(a.) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

(b.) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

(c.) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was protest against excessive extraction of rents.

(d.) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Q(20). Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:

I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.

II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

  1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.

  2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).

  3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2 only

    (b.) 1, 2 and 3

    (c.) 1 and 3 only

    (d.) 3 only

Q(21). Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a.) Ecuador

(b.) Peru

(c.) Bolivia

(d.) Colombia

Q(22). With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.

  2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.

  3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(23). With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.

  2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.

  3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(24). Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

  1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity

  2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills

  3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(25). Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:

Statement (I): The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

Statement (II): The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.

Statement (III): Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.

  2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.

  3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(26). Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):

  1. It is an epiphytic orchid.

  2. The species is endemic to North-east India.

  3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 3

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(27). Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

  1. They acted as army fortresses.

  2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.

  3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.

  4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 3

    (c.) 3 only

    (d.) 2 and 4

Q(28). At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation".

Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct?

(a.) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

(b.) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(c.) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(d.) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Q(29). Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

  1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.

  2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.

  3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 3 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(30). Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

(a.) Uttarakhand REDD+ project

(b.) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

(c.) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

(d.) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Q(31). Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change:

Statement (I): India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.

Statement (II): India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.

Statement (III): Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.

  2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.

  3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(32). With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.

  2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.

  3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(33). Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

  1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.

  2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.

  3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(34). In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?

  1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.

  2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.

  3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(35). Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

  1. It has an antecedent drainage system.

  2. It flows through three countries.

  3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.

  4. It does not form distributaries.

    Select the answer from the following:

    (a.) Brahmaputra

    (b.) Indus

    (c.) Sutlej

    (d.) Teesta

Q(36). Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

  1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.

  2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.

  3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(37). Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

  1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.

  2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.

  3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(38). Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

  1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas

  2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions

  3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 only

Q(39). Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

  1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.

  2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

Q(40). Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

  1. Bahrain

  2. Syria

  3. Qatar

  4. Egypt

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2

    (b.) 1 and 3

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 3 and 4

Q(41). Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II
A. Silver Notice 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
B. Blue Notice 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
C. Black Notice 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
D. Green Notice 4. To identify and trace criminal assets

Code:

(a.) 2, 1, 3, 4

(b.) 4, 2, 1, 3

(c.) 4, 2, 3, 1

(d.) 4, 1, 3, 2

Q(42). Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

  1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.

  2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.

  3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 1 and 3 only

    (c.) 2 only

    (d.) 3 only

Q(43). The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

  1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg

  2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation

  3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific

  4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 2 and 3

    (b.) 1 and 4

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1 only

Q(44). Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

  1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.

  2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

Q(45). The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

  1. The new standard is known as IS 19445: 2025.

  2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.

  3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1 only

Q(46). X, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X':

(a.) Michel H. Devoret

(b.) Richard Robson

(c.) John Clarke

(d.) Joel Mokyr

Q(47). Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

(a.) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat

(b.) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam

(c.) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh

(d.) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Q(48). Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct?

  1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.

  2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

Q(49). Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

  1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.

  2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.

  3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(50). Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong':

  1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category.

  2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.

  3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 3 only

Q(51). Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

  1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.

  2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.

  3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.

  4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 3

    (b.) 2 and 4 only

    (c.) 1, 2 and 4

    (d.) 1 and 4 only

Q(52). An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

(a.) Dropshipping Model

(b.) Affiliate Revenue Model

(c.) Transaction Fee Revenue Model

(d.) Agency Revenue Model

Q(53). Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(a.) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage

(b.) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy

(c.) Access, Usage, and Quality

(d.) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Q(54). Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?

(a.) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions

(b.) To replace private e-commerce players

(c.) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks

(d.) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Q(55). Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

(a.) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.

(b.) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.

(c.) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.

(d.) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Q(56). Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

  1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.

  2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24x7 access, promoting financial inclusion.

  3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1 and 3 only

Q(57). A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

(a.) Green Bond

(b.) Social Bond

(c.) Sustainability Bond

(d.) Sovereign Bond

Q(58). Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

  1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.

  2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.

  3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1 only

Q(59). Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?

(a.) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending

(b.) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

(c.) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment

(d.) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Q(60). Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

  1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).

  2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.

  3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.

  4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 3 only

    (b.) 3 only

    (c.) 1, 3 and 4

    (d.) 1, 2 and 4

Q(61). Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

  1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.

  2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

Q(62). Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

  1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.

  2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

Q(63). With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

List-I List-II
1. R.N. Malhotra Committee Comprehensive Regulatory reforms of Insurance sector in India (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India)
2. L.C. Gupta Committee Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
3. Urjit R. Patel Committee Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector (Reserve Bank of India)
4. Y.H. Malegam Committee Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India (Reserve Bank of India)

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

(a.) 2 only

(b.) 2 and 3

(c.) 1, 3 and 4

(d.) 2 and 4

Q(64). Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:

  1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.

  2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.

  3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.

  4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 and 4

    (b.) 1, 2 and 3

    (c.) 4 only

    (d.) 2, 3 and 4

Q(65). Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

  1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.

  2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.

  3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 and 2 only

    (b.) 1, 2 and 3

    (c.) 1 and 3 only

    (d.) 2 only

Q(66). Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

  1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.

  2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.

  3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(67). Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

  1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.

  2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.

  3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(68). Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

  1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.

  2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.

  3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(69). Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

  1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.

  2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.

  3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(70). Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

  1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).

  2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.

  3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 2 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(71). Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme:

  1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.

  2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.

  3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(72). Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

  1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.

  2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.

  3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(73). Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

  1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.

  2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.

  3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(74). Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

  1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits.

  2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

Q(75). Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

  1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.

  2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.

  3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 2 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(76). Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

(a.) Esprit de corps

(b.) Equity

(c.) Accountability

(d.) Delegation

Q(77). In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.

As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

  1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.

  2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.

  3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform- including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives - to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.

  4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

    Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

    (a.) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (b.) 3 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q(78). Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

  1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public

  2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity

  3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2 only

    (b.) 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

Q(79). X was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. Y pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a.) 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.

(b.) The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.

(c.) The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.

(d.) The view of only 'Y' is correct.

Q(80). Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

  1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.

  2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.

  3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

    Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

    (a.) All three statements are correct.

    (b.) There is no correct statement.

    (c.) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.

    (d.) There is only one correct statement.

Q(81). Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

  1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.

  2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains - built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.

  3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) 1 and 3

    (d.) 1 only

Q(82). Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

  1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

  2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.

  3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

    Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

    (a.) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

    (b.) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

    (c.) There is only one correct statement.

    (d.) All three statements are correct.

Q(83). Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

  1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.

  2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.

  3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

    Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

    (a.) All the three statements are correct.

    (b.) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

    (c.) There is only one correct statement.

    (d.) There is no correct statement.

Q(84). Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

  1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

  2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.

  3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.

  4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

    Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

    (a.) There are four correct statements.

    (b.) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

    (c.) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

    (d.) There is no correct statement.

Q(85). Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

  1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.

  2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.

  3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 1 and 2 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1 only

Q(86). Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

  1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.

  2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.

  3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 and 2

    (b.) 2 and 3

    (c.) 1 only

    (d.) 3 only

Q(87). Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

  1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.

  2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.

  3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 only

    (d.) 2 only

Q(88). With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

Sl. No. Organisation Function Controlling Union Ministry
1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) To investigate complex corporate frauds Ministry of Finance
3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

(a.) 1

(b.) 2

(c.) 3

(d.) None

Q(89). Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

  1. Employment Policy Convention

  2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention

  3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families

  4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War

  5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 2 and 4

    (b.) 1 and 2

    (c.) 3 and 4 only

    (d.) 3, 4 and 5

Q(90). Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

  1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.

  2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.

  3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 1 and 2 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 3 only

Q(91). Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

  1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project

  2. IMT Trilateral Highway

  3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2

    (b.) 2 and 3

    (c.) 1 and 3

    (d.) 2 only

Q(92). Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Project Supported by India) List-II (Country)
A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project 1. Maldives
B. Restoration of Stor Palace 2. Afghanistan
C. District Hospital at Dickoya 3. Bhutan
D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies 4. Sri Lanka

Code:

(a.) A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3

(b.) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1

(c.) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1

(d.) A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3

Q(93). Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

  1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets

  2. T-90 MK-III Tanks

  3. Akula Class Submarine

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2

    (b.) 1 and 3

    (c.) 1 only

    (d.) 2 only

Q(94). Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

  1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.

  2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.

  3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1, 2 and 3

    (b.) 1 and 3 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 2 only

Q(95). Consider the following UN organisations/ agencies:

  1. World Food Programme

  2. United Nations Children's Fund

  3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

  4. International Labour Organisation

    How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

    (a.) 1

    (b.) 2

    (c.) 3

    (d.) 4

Q(96). Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) List-II (Period of Operation)
A. UNMIL 1. 2007-2010
B. MINURCAT 2. 2002-2005
C. MINUSTAH 3. 2003-2018
D. UNMISET 4. 2004-2017

Code:

(a.) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

(b.) A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

(c.) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

(d.) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

Q(97). Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) List-II (Location)
A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory 1. NOIDA
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre 2. Bengaluru
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate 3. Colombo
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility 4. Thimphu

Code:

(a.) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1

(b.) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

(c.) A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3

(d.) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

Q(98). Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a.) 3 Corps : Dimapur

(b.) 4 Corps : Tezpur

(c.) 14 Corps : Leh

(d.) 33 Corps : Srinagar

Q(99). Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

  1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.

  2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.

  3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1 and 2

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) 1 and 3

    (d.) 2 and 3

Q(100). Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

  1. Belarus

  2. Poland

  3. Germany

  4. Switzerland

    Select the answer using the code given below:

    (a.) 1, 2 and 4

    (b.) 1 and 4 only

    (c.) 2 and 3

    (d.) 2 and 4 only

Books for Agriculture Optional for UPSC CSE Mains Exams

 Choosing the right books is essential for effective preparation of Agriculture Optional in UPSC CSE Mains. A focused list of standard and reliable books helps in building strong concepts and saving time.

Recommended Books for Paper 1

Here is a curated list of important books for Agriculture Optional Paper 1:

Topic Book Title Author / Publisher
Agronomy & Crop Production Handbook of Agriculture ICAR
Agronomy & Crop Production Principles of Agronomy S.R. Reddy
Agronomy & Crop Production Modern Techniques of Raising Field Crops Chhidda Singh
Soil Science Textbook of Soil Science D.K. Das
Soil Science Introduction to Soil Science ISSS
Weed Management Principles of Weed Science V.S. Rao
Dryland Agriculture Dryland Agriculture ICAR
Agricultural Economy Agricultural Marketing in India S.S. Acharya
Agricultural Extension Handbook of Agricultural Extension ICAR

Recommended Books for Paper 2

Here is a curated list of important books for Agriculture Optional Paper 2:

Topic Book Title Author / Publisher
Genetics & Plant Breeding Genetics and Plant Breeding B.D. Singh
Plant Breeding Plant Breeding: Principles and Methods B.D. Singh
Plant Physiology Plant Physiology Pandey and Sinha
Plant Physiology Biology (Class 11 & 12) NCERT
Horticulture Introduction to Horticulture K. Kumar
Horticulture Handbook of Horticulture ICAR
Crop Protection Plant Pathology R.S. Singh
Crop Protection Handbook of Pest Management D.P. Abrol
Seed Science Seed Science and Technology S.P. Agarwal
Food Science Food Science B. Srilakshmi

Additional Useful Resources

Along with standard books, aspirants should regularly refer to:

  • Economic Survey (Agriculture Chapter)
  • Union Budget documents
  • State of Indian Agriculture report
  • Annual Reports of ICAR and Ministry of Agriculture
  • Indian Farming and Indian Horticulture magazines by ICAR

These resources help in linking static topics with current developments and government schemes.

Final Tip

Start with the Handbook of Agriculture by ICAR as it covers a wide range of topics. Focus on understanding concepts rather than reading too many books. Quality revision of selected books is more important than covering every title from the comprehensive list.

A well-chosen set of books, combined with regular answer writing and diagram practice, can significantly improve performance in Agriculture Optional for UPSC CSE Mains.

Strategies for Agriculture Optional Paper 1 and 2 for UPSC CSE Mains Exams

 

Strategies for Agriculture Optional Paper 1 for UPSC CSE Mains Exams

Agriculture Optional Paper 1 is one of the most scoring papers in UPSC CSE Mains if prepared with the right approach. A focused strategy on syllabus understanding, answer writing, and visual presentation can help aspirants score 200+ marks.

Understand the Syllabus Thoroughly

Go through the complete syllabus of Agriculture Optional Paper 1 carefully. Break it into smaller units such as Ecology, Agronomy, Soil Science, Dryland Agriculture, and Agricultural Extension. This helps in systematic coverage and avoids missing important areas.

Reliable sources for syllabus: UPSC Official Website and Agrimly Website.

Select Standard Reference Books

Choose quality books recommended by toppers. Some essential books for Paper 1 include:

  • Fundamentals of Agriculture by Arun Katyayan
  • Standard books on Soil Science and Agronomy
  • ICAR publications for technical clarity

Refer to the ICAR and Agrimly websites for additional authentic resources.

Make Concise and Diagram-Rich Notes

Prepare short and clear notes for every topic. Highlight key definitions, data, and government schemes. Make your notes diagram-heavy, especially for topics like cropping systems, watershed management, and soil profiles.

Master Answer Writing

Regularly practice writing answers from previous years’ questions. Focus on:

  • Clear structure (Introduction – Body – Conclusion)
  • Use of diagrams and flowcharts
  • Integration of current data and examples

Previous year papers are available on the UPSC Official Website and Agrimly.

Focus on High-Yield Topics

Prioritize topics that carry higher weightage in Paper 1:

  • Agronomy and Cropping Systems
  • Soil Science and Nutrient Management
  • Dryland Agriculture and Watershed Management
  • Agricultural Extension and Farm Management

Analyzing previous years’ papers helps identify these recurring areas.

Stay Updated with Current Affairs

Link static topics with recent developments. Follow:

  • Government schemes and policies
  • Economic Survey (Agriculture Chapter)
  • Ministry of Agriculture updates

Use sources like The Hindu, Indian Express, and the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare website.

Use Diagrams and Visual Aids

Incorporate neat diagrams, flowcharts, and tables in your answers. This improves presentation and helps fetch better marks, especially in topics like Soil Conservation, Irrigation Methods, and Cropping Patterns.

Practice Mock Tests and Regular Revision

Take regular mock tests to improve speed and answer quality. Enroll in a good test series for evaluation. Allocate dedicated time for revision using short notes and flashcards to retain concepts effectively.

By following these strategies with consistent practice, aspirants can build strong command over Agriculture Optional Paper 1 and significantly improve their chances of scoring high marks in UPSC CSE Mains.

Strategies for Agriculture Optional Paper 2 for UPSC CSE Mains Exams

Agriculture Optional Paper 2 is more technical and scientific compared to Paper 1. It requires strong conceptual clarity in genetics, plant breeding, physiology, and crop protection. With focused preparation and regular answer writing, aspirants can score well in this paper.

Understand the Syllabus Thoroughly

Go through the complete syllabus of Agriculture Optional Paper 2 in detail. Break it into key areas such as Genetics & Plant Breeding, Plant Physiology, Horticulture, Plant Protection, and Food & Nutrition Security. Clear understanding of each topic helps in targeted preparation.

Build Strong Conceptual Foundation

Focus on building clear concepts in technical subjects like:

  • Cell Biology and Genetics
  • Principles of Plant Breeding
  • Plant Physiology and Stress Management
  • Seed Production and Technology

Use standard books and refer to ICAR publications for depth.

Master Diagrams and Scientific Presentation

Paper 2 rewards answers with neat diagrams. Practice drawing diagrams related to plant breeding methods, photosynthesis pathways, pest life cycles, and horticultural practices. Well-labelled diagrams significantly improve answer quality and marks.

Practice Answer Writing Regularly

Write answers to previous years’ questions with proper structure. Focus on:

  • Scientific accuracy
  • Use of technical terms
  • Balanced presentation with diagrams where required

Regular practice helps in improving speed and presentation for UPSC CSE Mains.

Prioritize High-Yield Topics

Give more attention to frequently asked and high-weightage topics such as:

  • Plant Breeding methods and biotechnology
  • Plant Physiology (photosynthesis, stress physiology)
  • Integrated Pest and Disease Management
  • Horticulture and Post-Harvest Technology
  • Food Security and Nutrition

Analyzing previous year questions helps identify these areas.

Integrate Current Developments

Link theoretical topics with recent advancements in biotechnology, GM crops, climate-resilient varieties, and government initiatives in horticulture and plant protection. This adds value to your answers.

Revise and Practice Mock Tests

Allocate sufficient time for revision of technical concepts. Take regular mock tests to improve answer writing under exam conditions. Focus on time management and clarity in scientific explanations.

By following a disciplined approach with emphasis on concepts, diagrams, and answer writing, aspirants can effectively prepare for Agriculture Optional Paper 2 and achieve a strong score in UPSC CSE Mains.

Syllabus for IAS Agriculture Optional Paper – 2

 

Syllabus for IAS Agriculture Optional Paper – 2

2.1.0 Genetics

2.1.1 Cell Structure, Function, and Cell Cycle

2.1.2 Synthesis, Structure, and Function of Genetic Material

2.1.3 Laws of Heredity

2.1.4 Chromosome Structure

2.1.5 Chromosomal Aberrations

2.1.6 Linkage and Crossover, and Their Significance in Recombination Breeding

2.1.7 Polyploidy, Euploidy, and Aneuploidy

2.1.8 Mutations and Their Role in Crop Improvement

2.1.9 Heritability, Sterility, Incompatibility, Classification, and Their Application in Crop Improvement

2.1.10 Cytoplasmic Inheritance

2.1.11 Sex-Linked, Sex-Influenced, and Sex-Limited Characters

2.2.0 Plant Breeding

2.2.1 History of Plant Breeding

2.2.2 Modes of Reproduction, Selfing, and Crossing Techniques

2.2.3 Origin, Evolution, and Domestication of Crop Plants, Centre of Origin, Law of Homologous Series, Crop Genetic Resources – Conservation and Utilization

2.2.4 Application of Principles of Plant Breeding and Improvement of Crop Plants

2.2.5 Molecular Markers and Their Application in Plant Improvement

2.2.6 Pure-Line Selection, Pedigree, Mass, and Recurrent Selections

2.2.7 Combining Ability and Its Significance in Plant Breeding

2.2.8 Heterosis and Its Exploitation

2.2.9 Somatic Hybridization

2.2.10 Breeding for Disease and Pest Resistance

2.2.11 Role of Interspecific and Intergeneric Hybridization

2.2.12 Role of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology in Crop Improvement

2.2.13 Genetically Modified Crop Plants

2.3.0 Seed Science

2.3.1 Seed Production and Processing Technologies

2.3.2 Seed Certification, Seed Testing, and Storage

2.3.3 DNA Fingerprinting and Seed Registration

2.3.4 Role of Public and Private Sectors in Seed Production and Marketing

2.3.5 Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Issues, WTO Issues, and Their Impact on Agriculture

2.4.0 Biochemistry and Plant Physiology

2.4.1 Principles of Plant Physiology with Reference to Plant Nutrition, Absorption, Translocation, and Metabolism of Nutrients

2.4.2 Soil–Water–Plant Relationship

2.4.3 Enzymes and Plant Pigments

2.4.4 Photosynthesis: Modern Concepts and Factors Affecting the Process

2.4.5 Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration

2.4.6 C₃, C₄, and CAM Mechanisms

2.4.7 Carbohydrate, Protein, and Fat Metabolism

2.4.8 Growth and Development

2.4.9 Photoperiodism and Vernalization

2.4.10 Plant Growth Substances and Their Role in Crop Production

2.4.11 Physiology of Seed Development, Germination, and Seed Dormancy

2.4.12 Stress Physiology: Drought, Salt, and Water Stress

2.5.0 Horticulture

2.5.1 Major Fruits, Plantation Crops, Vegetables, Spices, and Flower Crops

2.5.2 Package Practices of Major Horticultural Crops

2.5.3 Protected Cultivation and High-Tech Horticulture

2.5.4 Post-Harvest Technology and Value Addition of Fruits and Vegetables

2.5.5 Landscaping and Commercial Floriculture

2.5.6 Medicinal and Aromatic Plants

2.5.7 Role of Fruits and Vegetables in Human Nutrition

2.6.0 Crop Protection

2.6.1 Diagnosis of Pests and Diseases of Field Crops, Vegetables, Orchards, and Plantation Crops and Their Economic Importance

2.6.2 Classification of Pests and Diseases and Their Management

2.6.3 Integrated Pest and Disease Management

2.6.4 Storage Pests and Their Management

2.6.5 Biological Control of Pests and Diseases

2.6.6 Epidemiology and Forecasting of Major Crop Pests and Diseases

2.6.7 Plant Quarantine Measures

2.6.8 Pesticides, Their Formulation, and Modes of Action

2.7.0 Food Science

2.7.1 Food Production and Consumption Trends in India

2.7.2 Food Security and Growing Population: Vision 2020

2.7.3 Reasons for Grain Surplus

2.7.4 National and International Food Policies

2.7.5 Production, Procurement, and Distribution Constraints

2.7.6 Availability of Food Grains and Per Capita Expenditure on Food

2.7.7 Trends in Poverty, Public Distribution System, Below Poverty Line Population, and Targeted Public Distribution System (PDS)

2.7.8 Policy Implementation in the Context of Globalization

2.7.9 Processing Constraints

2.7.10 Relation of Food Production to National Dietary Guidelines and Food Consumption Patterns

2.7.11 Food-Based Dietary Approaches to Eliminate Hunger

2.7.12 Nutrient Deficiency: Macronutrient Deficiency, Protein-Energy Malnutrition or Protein-Calorie Malnutrition (PEM or PCM)

2.7.13 Micronutrient Deficiency and HRD in the Context of Work Capacity of Women and Children

2.7.14 Food Grain Productivity and Food Security

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